REMISSION, REDEMPTION,
and Acts 2:38

The Answer to Baptismal Regeneration

 

There is a difference between remission and redemption in the dictionary and in the Bible."To remit" means - to forgive of or to release from the guilt or penalty of something (e.g. sins), while "to redeem" means to clear, buy back, or liberate by payment. These two words are not the same nor are they interchangeable. Redemption requires a payment from someone to someone. There is no payment with remission. Under the Old Testament forgiveness or remission was obtained by offering the required blood sacrifice.

 

 

If the Old Testament saints weren't forgiven they all would have gone to hell when they died. But they were forgiven. These verses show it clearly.

 

Old Testament saints were forgiven but not cleared. They had remission but not redemption. Paul, also, states this.

 

Christ came to redeem those saints who already had remission of sins that are past. For even though the blood of animals remitted the sins of the Old Testament saints:

 

Only the Lord Jesus Christ's blood can take away or redeem.

 

 

The Old Testament saints were forgiven but not redeemed until Christ's death.

 

Being baptized in order to have your sins forgiven is not Biblical. It's always blood that remits sins. Old Testament saints already had remission of sins because of their blood sacrifices, and when John the Baptist showed up it was to Old Testament Israel he was sent. Now John baptized "for the remission of sins."

 

 

No one's sins were forgiven because John baptized him. God never forgives sins on the basis of water! John, himself, stated the reason for his baptism.

 

The fact is that Israel's sins had already been forgiven, according to God's own laws, by the required blood sacrifices. John proclaimed: "You've been forgiven - Messiah is on his way - prove your belief and repentance by getting baptized." Baptism "for the remission of sins" is for people who believe their sins are already forgiven by blood!! They are baptized because their sins have been forgiven, and they are looking forward to the Messiah coming to redeem them. Christ died for our sins. He didn't die "in order for" us to commit sin but because we already had! Christ knew this in Matthew 26:28. He knew that the Old Testament saints had been forgiven and that they were waiting for the final eternal redemption.

 

Those Jews present at Peter's first message in Acts 2 were already forgiven. Jesus prayed "Father, forgive them" in Luke 23:34, and God did on the basis of Christ's shed blood before any baptism. Now those Jews in Acts 2 who believed Peter's preaching must ACT to appropriate their personal, eternal, redemption, because now redemption and not just remission was required for salvation. Peter's baptism was not for the Jews to have their sins forgiven, but for them to receive the Holy Ghost.

 

This side of the cross there is no salvation outside the Holy Ghost. He must be in you.

 

The baptism of Acts 2:38 was for those Jews who believed to receive the Holy Ghost, and thus make their salvation complete.

 

Before Jesus' death the Gentiles because they had no blood sacrifice. Peter preached to Cornelius' household in Acts 10 and offered remission on the basis of Christ's shed blood NOT baptism.

 

When they believed they were forgiven and redeemed at the same time. The Holy Ghost indwelt them before they were baptized.

 

The message of Acts 2 was preached to Pentecostal Jews whose generation had crucified the Lord. Those Jews needed to be baptized to receive the Holy Ghost and thus be saved. This is not Pentecost. None of you reading this are Jews those generation killed Jesus. And Galatians 3:27 is not a reference to water baptism but to the baptism of the Holy Spirit which a person receives when he trusts the Lord Jesus Christ as his personal Saviour. No person ever has his sins forgiven by be baptized. The Bible is clear.

 


ADDENDUM

The Case of Galatians 3:27

Frequently, Galatians 3:27 is used to try to prove the necessity of water baptism for salvation. A common sense look at the scripture will show this is false. The book of Galatians is addressed to a group of local churches.

 

Saved people make up the membership of local churches. For those who believe that water baptism is necessary for salvation this means that local church members are people who have already been baptized in water. If they had not been baptized, they would not have been saved, and therefore not even eligible to be members of a local church.

Those people who teach that water baptism is required for salvation also frequently believe that baptism puts a person into the church (or body) of Christ as a local church member.

One problem with Galatians 3:27 being water baptism is, that since Paul is addressing "churches of Galatia", (who presumably have already been baptized, otherwise, they would not be groups called "churches"), why would he say "for as many of you as have been baptized"? Although these people, to whom he writes, already qualify to be scripturally called "churches", (Galatians 1:3), there is a possibility that some of their people have not been baptized! If the baptism of Galatians 3 is water, then a church may exist without water baptism because Paul is addressing church memebers who have NOT been baptized.

Among all the problems the churches of Galatia had, they had no difficulty with water baptism. If they were admitting members into their churches without proper water baptism, Paul would have certainly mentioned this error. Those people would have been unbaptized members, as well as being lost, if water baptism is necessary for salvation. However, there is no rebuke for their mode of baptism, or their practice of it, or the admitting of lost people into their membership. Yet there is the distinct possibility that some of the members of the churches of Galatia had not been baptized with the baptism of Galatians 3:27. Instead of "all of you have been baptized", which would be the case if the churches practiced water baptism to complete salvation and for church admittance, we read: "For as many of you as have been baptized."

Paul rebuked the churches for being "removed" unto another gospel in Galatians 1:6. He called them "FOOLISH Galatians" in Galatians 3:1, for attempting perfection by the flesh. He corrected them for observing "days, and months, and times and years" in Galatians 4:10. He showed the ridiculous end of mixing law and grace in Galatians 5:4. He warned them that liberty was not an occasion of the flesh in Galatians 5:13. But, he did not correct their practice of water baptism!!

If Galatians 3:27 is a reference to WATER baptism, the churches of Galatia DID NOT require church members to be baptized in water. And if that was the case, Paul agreed with the practice by correcting other errors and leaving that one alone! According to Galatians 3:28, the identification of the believer after that baptism is "...neither Jew nor Greek, neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female..." Water baptism has never eliminated the differentiation between those pairs or eradicated anyone's gender. Saving baptism is baptism of the Holy Spirit (that does NOT mean "tongues"). See Acts 1:5, I Corinthians 12:13, and Romans 8:9.

A person is saved today by faith through grace without the works of water baptism.

 



Written by

D.J. Root
Pensacola, FLorida, USA

D. J. Root
AV1611Root@juno.com


The King James Bible is the final authority for all doctrine,
faith, and practice. Any deviation from the text is purely inadvertent.

 


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