"NO MORE OF WORKS" Romans 11:6
A Contextual and Grammatical Explanation

The purpose of this short article is to show that the phrase "NO MORE of works" in Romans 11:6 proves by context and by the rules of English grammar that salvation under the Law USED TO BE "of works."

The context of Romans 11 is the past and present nation of Israel.

• Romans 11:1
  I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin.

The first two verses of this chapter would be a "present," Church Age reference, as Paul uses himself as an example, and Paul is a Church Age saint. So even in the Church Age God has not permanently rejected Israel. Now in verse 3 Paul is comparing Israel's HISTORY with the present.

• Romans 11:2
  God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel, saying, 3 Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life.

Obviously this is an historical reference (I Kings 19) concerning Elijah. Now he is going to make a comparison between then and now.

• Romans 11:4
  But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal.

So then in past history there were seven thousand men who remained faithful to God. (of works - the way it USED to be)

• Romans 11:5
  Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant.......

Now he is talking about Israelites of his present. During that present time (Church Age) there was also a group, a remnant, who were faithful to God. BUT there was something different about those Israelites who were contemporaries of Paul .

......there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

THESE Israelites were saved by GRACE during Paul's time.

• Romans 11:6
  And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace.

Like Paul, these Israelites' lives spanned two separate and distinct dispensations. Like Paul, these Israelites had righteousness under the law before the time of Christ. Like Paul, these Israelites salvation USED TO BE by works, but now is it "NO MORE OF WORKS."

• Philippians 3:6
  Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

Of Zacharius and Elisabeth is was said.

• Luke 1:6
  And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

Like Paul, the Israelite remnant "at this PRESENT time" had received Christ by grace through faith. NOW, their salvation was no longer because of the "righteousness which is in the law." Righteousness obtained by keeping the law - WORKS.

• "But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work."

Grace and works ARE mutually exclusive as far as SALVATION in the Church Age is concerned. Paul is writing IN the Church Age TO Christians in the Church Age ABOUT Church Age salvation. He is once more explaining that salvation "at this present time" is by grace through faith alone.

• "But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work."

This is not the only place Paul mentions this.

• Galatians 3:2
  This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

In Galatians Paul again shows how the law and faith are exact opposites for salvation TODAY.

• Galatians 3:23
  But before faith came, we were kept under the law, SHUT UP unto the FAITH which should AFTERWARDS be revealed.

This does not mean the OT saints had no faith. It means that faith WAS NOT available at the TIME as the SOLE means of salvation. They were "kept under the LAW." THAT was the means that God had provided for them to receive remission of sins.

• Ezekiel 18:9
  Hath walked in my statutes, and hath kept my judgments, to deal truly; HE IS JUST, he shall surely live, saith the Lord GOD.

Under Mosaic Law a man was justified by walking in God's statues and keeping God's judgments. That was THEN. This is NOW.

• Galatians 3:24
  Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us UNTO CHRIST, that we might be JUSTIFIED BY **FAITH**.

Now some will go back to Romans 9 to try to show that Israel was ALWAYS saved by faith.

• Romans 9:31
  But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. ... 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law.......

Now, those verses, standing alone, sound very damning to salvation by works, BUT the context CLEARLY shows that Paul is speaking of the generation of Israel that rejected Christ while he was there. The generation that also spanned two different dispensations. Verses were already given to show that there WAS righteousness given by the works of the Law. Paul says that these Israelites had "not attained TO the law of righteousness." Paul is talking about the generation that actually crucified Christ. The law was their schoolmaster to bring them to Christ but they STOPPED following where the law was leading and didn't accept their Messiah.

• Romans 9:32
  Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. **For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;** .............. 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.

That generation rejected Christ and would not receive him by faith. Instead they wanted to continue in the works of the law and not be LEAD by those works to the final conclusion which was faith in Christ.

If there is ANY doubt of this interpretation a previous verse clarifies it even more.

• Romans 9:30
  What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.

The Gentiles who did NOT follow the Law for righteousness STILL found the righteousness which is of faith in Christ. Paul is saying, those Gentiles didn't even have a "map" (the Law) but THEY found the truth, BUT that generation of Israel which DID have the "map" REFUSED to take the "narrow way." Verse 30 clearly shows the time frame is NOT referring to salvation under the Law BEFORE Christ, but salvation AFTER Christ, in the Church Age , where the Law for salvation is no longer in effect.

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Some people reject the clear contextual explanation because of a misunderstanding or lack of knowledge of the also very clear grammatical explanation. Although rules of English grammar are not as rigid as mathematical rules, the ones about to be discussed are some of the common and simpler ones that are readily recongnized and accepted.

• Romans 11:6
  And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.

This verse consists of two compound-complex sentences. Each sentence has one dependent clause and two independent clauses. (Independent clauses can stand alone as sentences.) In both these sentences two independent clauses are separated by colons. A colon can be used to separate two independent clauses that compliment each other or give additional or fuller information.

First sentence:

• "And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace."

"And if by grace," is a dependent elliptical clause. Being an elliptical clause one must refer back to the previous verse to see to what the "And if" refers. "And if (the remnant's election is..) by grace..." There is no problem with this, as it is clear that the election of the remnant IS by grace.

"then is it no more of works:" is an independent clause in the indicative mood which also states an obvious fact. Salvation is "no more of works."

"otherwise grace is no more grace." is an independent clause in the indicative mood which states another obvious fact. Grace can’t be grace if it is combined with works.

Now the problem with understanding the rest of the verse has to do with the mood.

"But if it be of works, then is it no more grace:"

"But if it be of works" obviously means "it" is NOT of works. That has already been stated in verse 5 and at the beginning of verse 6. It has been stated emphatically that the present remnant was "according to the election of GRACE."

This dependent clause - "But if it be of works" - is in the SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD. Here is the definition of the subjunctive mood from a grammar handbook. "The subjunctive mood in dependent clauses expresses a condition that is CONTRARY TO FACT: something that is not or could not be true."

In other words, being that it IS true, that the remnant were saved by grace and not works, the entire statement (before the colon) is subjunctive AND hypothetical in nature. It is stating something that IS NOT TRUE.

Here are some examples of other subjunctive mood verses.

• Psalm 7:3
  O LORD my God, if I have done this; if there be iniquity in my hands; 5 Let the enemy persecute my soul......

There was no iniquity on his hands.

• Matthew 24:24
  For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall show great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.

It is not possible to deceive the elect.

• John 8:42
  Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me:

God wasn't their Father.

The subjunctive mood expresses something contrary to fact or which is not or could not be true. Paul is making an hypothetical statement in the second half of the verse while he is making a factual statement in the first half. It is hypothetical but it makes sense.

"But if it be of works" {it's NOT of works, but IF it were} "then it is no more grace."

"Otherwise work is no more work." Works are works and grace is grace. They are not combined for salvation today.

Please note the PRESENT tense. Paul is speaking in the present. He is talking about the remnant (according to the election of grace) in his present time - the Church Age. The whole verse is in the present tense. He is talking about a remnant that are contemporary with him. BUT they were ALSO contemporary with him BEFORE Christ came. Therefore the "no more" still means "used to be."

CONCLUSION

Salvation in any dispensation that consists of faith plus works is attacked as heresy by most Baptists. Baptists who understand the fullness of the doctrine of salvation for today by grace through faith alone seem to want to extend it to all dispensations. Those today who teach that works are involved to secure or keep salvation did not make it up not of thin air. That doctrine is IN the Bible, in many places; it is just not doctrinally applicable to the Church Age. In one verse Paul confirms this truth. The context of the chapter and the grammar of the verse verifies that Paul himself recognized that under the Law works were require for salvation. The only way to deny this is to deny the actual meanings of the actual words. Reread this article if necessary and consider what is said a second time. Saying "I still think........" is irrelevant. It is not what any of us think but what the word of God says.